Exercise · ZW-FACTORIAL-004 · ★☆☆ Basic

Why is \(0!\) defined as \(1\)?

Choose one option.

Show answer
  • B. Because then \(n!=n\,(n-1)!\) also holds for \(n=1\), and there is exactly one way to arrange zero objects.

Explanation

With \(0!=1\) we get \(1!=1\cdot 0!\), and the count of arrangements of no objects is 1 (the empty list). It is neither zero nor a limit.

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Review the concept: Factorial

The factorial of an integer \(n\ge 0\), written \(n!\), is the product of the positive integers less than or equal to \(n\); that of zero is one by convention.

\[n!=n(n-1)\cdots 2\cdot 1,\quad 0!=1\]

More practice problems: factorial

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