Exercise · ZW-FACTORIAL-004 · ★☆☆ Basic
Why is \(0!\) defined as \(1\)?
Choose one option.
Show answer
- B. Because then \(n!=n\,(n-1)!\) also holds for \(n=1\), and there is exactly one way to arrange zero objects.
Exercise · ZW-FACTORIAL-004 · ★☆☆ Basic
Choose one option.
With \(0!=1\) we get \(1!=1\cdot 0!\), and the count of arrangements of no objects is 1 (the empty list). It is neither zero nor a limit.
The factorial of an integer \(n\ge 0\), written \(n!\), is the product of the positive integers less than or equal to \(n\); that of zero is one by convention.