Exercise · ZW-CONSTRUCTION-OF-THE-NATURALS-010 · ★★★ Advanced Which statement gives a counterexample to the claim that \(n^+=n\) for every natural \(n\)? Choose one option. AFor \(n=0\), \(0^+=\{0\}\ne\varnothing=0\), so \(n^+\ne n\) thereBFor \(n=2\), \(2^+=2\) because \(2\) already contains all its successorsCFor \(n=1\), \(1^+=1\) because \(\{0\}\) equals \(\{1\}\)DFor no natural \(n\) does \(n^+\ne n\) hold Show answerA. For \(n=0\), \(0^+=\{0\}\ne\varnothing=0\), so \(n^+\ne n\) there ← Back to the question