Exercise · ZW-EQUIPOTENCE-004 · ★★☆ Intermediate

Let \(\mathbb{N}=\{0,1,2,\dots\}\). Is \(\mathbb{N}\) equipotent to \(\{0,2,4,\dots\}\)?

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  • B. Yes, via \(n\mapsto 2n\)

Explanation

The function \(n\mapsto 2n\) is a bijection between \(\mathbb{N}\) and the evens. Being a proper part of an infinite set does not prevent equipotence.

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Review the concept: Equipotence

Two sets \(A\) and \(B\) are equipotent if there is a bijection \(f\colon A\to B\). It is written \(A\sim B\).

\[A\sim B \iff \exists\, f\colon A\to B\ \text{biyectiva}\]

More practice problems: equipotence

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