Exercise · ZW-BIJECTIVE-FUNCTION-006 · ★★☆ Intermediate
Is \(f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\), \(f(x)=x^3-x\) bijective?
Choose one option.
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- A. No, because \(f(0)=f(1)=0\) and \(0\neq1\)
Exercise · ZW-BIJECTIVE-FUNCTION-006 · ★★☆ Intermediate
Choose one option.
For \(f(x)=x^3-x\) we have \(f(0)=f(1)=0\) with \(0\neq1\), so it is not injective and therefore not bijective. Being surjective, as every real polynomial of odd degree is, is not enough, and being a polynomial guarantees nothing either.
Function \(f\colon A\to B\) that is both injective and surjective, so each element of \(B\) corresponds to exactly one element of \(A\).