Exercise · ZW-BIJECTIVE-FUNCTION-006 · ★★☆ Intermediate

Is \(f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\), \(f(x)=x^3-x\) bijective?

Choose one option.

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  • A. No, because \(f(0)=f(1)=0\) and \(0\neq1\)

Explanation

For \(f(x)=x^3-x\) we have \(f(0)=f(1)=0\) with \(0\neq1\), so it is not injective and therefore not bijective. Being surjective, as every real polynomial of odd degree is, is not enough, and being a polynomial guarantees nothing either.

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Review the concept: Bijective function

Function \(f\colon A\to B\) that is both injective and surjective, so each element of \(B\) corresponds to exactly one element of \(A\).

\[\forall b\in B\;\exists!\,a\in A\,(f(a)=b)\]

More practice problems: bijective function

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