Exercise · ZW-COMPOSITION-AND-INVERSE-017 · ★★☆ Intermediate
If \(f\colon A\to B\), why is \(f\circ\mathrm{id}_A=f\)?
Choose one option.
A Because \(\mathrm{id}_A\) changes the codomain of \(f\) B Because \(\mathrm{id}_A\) leaves each \(x\) fixed, so \(f(\mathrm{id}_A(x))=f(x)\) C Because \(\mathrm{id}_A\) is the constant zero function D Because \(f\) must be bijective to be composed with it
Show answer B. Because \(\mathrm{id}_A\) leaves each \(x\) fixed, so \(f(\mathrm{id}_A(x))=f(x)\)
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Explanation Since \(\mathrm{id}_A(x)=x\), applying it before \(f\) changes nothing, so \(f\circ\mathrm{id}_A\) agrees with \(f\) at every point. No bijectivity of \(f\) is needed.
The composition \(g\circ f\) applies \(f\) first and then \(g\). The inverse \(f^{-1}\) exists when \(f\) is bijective and undoes its action.
\[(g\circ f)(x)=g(f(x)), \quad (g\circ f)^{-1}=f^{-1}\circ g^{-1}\]
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