Exercise · ZW-INTERMEDIATE-VALUE-THEOREM-015 · ★★☆ Intermediate
Why can the theorem not be used to ensure a zero of \(f(x)=1/x\) on \([-1,1]\), even though \(f(-1)=-1\) and \(f(1)=1\)?
Choose one option.
A Because \(f\) is neither defined nor continuous at \(0\) B Because \(f(-1)\) and \(f(1)\) have the same sign C Because the interval \([-1,1]\) is not closed D Because \(f\) only takes positive values
Show answer A. Because \(f\) is neither defined nor continuous at \(0\)
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Explanation The theorem requires continuity on the whole interval; \(1/x\) does not exist at \(0\) and in fact never equals \(0\). The signs at the endpoints are indeed opposite.
If \(f\) is continuous on \([a,b]\) and \(N\) lies between \(f(a)\) and \(f(b)\), there is some \(c\in(a,b)\) with \(f(c)=N\).