Exercise · ZW-INTERMEDIATE-VALUE-THEOREM-015 · ★★☆ Intermediate

Why can the theorem not be used to ensure a zero of \(f(x)=1/x\) on \([-1,1]\), even though \(f(-1)=-1\) and \(f(1)=1\)?

Choose one option.

Show answer
  • A. Because \(f\) is neither defined nor continuous at \(0\)

Explanation

The theorem requires continuity on the whole interval; \(1/x\) does not exist at \(0\) and in fact never equals \(0\). The signs at the endpoints are indeed opposite.

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Review the concept: Intermediate value theorem

If \(f\) is continuous on \([a,b]\) and \(N\) lies between \(f(a)\) and \(f(b)\), there is some \(c\in(a,b)\) with \(f(c)=N\).

\[f\ \text{continuous on }[a,b],\ f(a)

More practice problems: intermediate value theorem

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