Real numbers · Definition

Supremum and infimum

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Before you start you need to know

The supremum replaces the “maximum” when the latter does not exist, letting us talk about the endpoint of a set even if it does not belong to it.

Definition

Given a set \(S\) of real numbers, its supremum is the least of its upper bounds and its infimum is the greatest of its lower bounds.

\[s\le\sup S,\quad s\ge\inf S\qquad\forall s\in S\]

A set \(S\) is bounded above if there is \(M\) with \(s\le M\) for all \(s\in S\); each such \(M\) is an upper bound. The supremum \(\sup S\) is the least of them. If \(\sup S\in S\), it is the maximum; but \((0,1)\) has supremum \(1\) and no maximum.

A practical test: \(M=\sup S\) if and only if \(M\) is an upper bound and, for every \(\varepsilon>0\), there is \(s\in S\) with \(s>M-\varepsilon\). That is, no smaller bound works. The infimum case is symmetric, and \(\inf S=-\sup(-S)\).

Guiding examples: \(\sup\{1-1/n\}=1\) without belonging to the set, \(\inf\{1/n\}=0\), and \(\sup\{x:x^2<2\}=\sqrt2\). The last one already shows why \(\mathbb Q\) is not enough: in \(\mathbb Q\) that set has upper bounds but none is the least.

If \(S\subseteq T\), then \(\sup S\le\sup T\), and the supremum of a union is the larger of the suprema. That every nonempty set bounded above has a supremum is precisely the completeness axiom, the next concept.

Think about it

Can a set have two different suprema?

No: if \(M_1<M_2\) were both the least upper bound, \(M_2\) would not be the least. The supremum, if it exists, is unique.

Is \(\sup S\) the same as \(\max S\)?

No: \(\max S\) must belong to \(S\). They coincide only when the supremum is an element of the set.

Exercises 10

References

  • Stephen Abbott, Understanding Analysis, 2nd edition, Springer, 2015. §1.3
  • Walter Rudin, Principles of Mathematical Analysis, 3rd edition, McGraw-Hill, 1976. Cap. 1, 1.7–1.8
  • Robert G. Bartle, Donald R. Sherbert, Introduction to Real Analysis, 4th edition, Wiley, 2011. §2.3