Exercise · ZW-MONOTONE-CONVERGENCE-THEOREM-004 · ★☆☆ Basic

The sequence \(a_n=(-1)^n\) is bounded and does not converge. Why does this not contradict the theorem?

Choose one option.

Show answer
  • D. Because it is not monotone

Explanation

The theorem needs monotonicity and boundedness together. It is bounded, but \(-1,1,-1,\dots\) is not monotone.

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Review the concept: Monotone convergence theorem

Every real sequence \((a_n)\), indexed by the natural numbers \(\mathbb N\), that is monotone and bounded converges to a real number.

\[a_n\ \text{increasing and bounded}\ \Rightarrow\ \lim a_n=\sup\{a_n:n\in\mathbb N\}\]

More practice problems: monotone convergence theorem

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