Exercise · ZW-UNIFORM-CONVERGENCE-010 · ★★★ Advanced
Let \(f_n(x)=nxe^{-nx}\) on \([0,1]\), with pointwise limit \(0\). Does it converge uniformly to \(0\)?
Choose one option.
Show answer
- B. No, because \(f_n(1/n)=e^{-1}\) does not tend to \(0\).
Exercise · ZW-UNIFORM-CONVERGENCE-010 · ★★★ Advanced
Choose one option.
At \(x=1/n\) we have \(f_n(1/n)=e^{-1}\) for every \(n\), so \(\sup|f_n|\ge e^{-1}\) and it does not tend to \(0\). Pointwise convergence is not enough: the peak slides toward \(0\) without shrinking.
A sequence of functions \(f_n\) converges uniformly to \(f\) on a set \(A\) if, for every \(\varepsilon>0\), a single index \(N\) works for all points of \(A\).