Exercise · ZW-UNIFORM-CONVERGENCE-010 · ★★★ Advanced

Let \(f_n(x)=nxe^{-nx}\) on \([0,1]\), with pointwise limit \(0\). Does it converge uniformly to \(0\)?

Choose one option.

Show answer
  • B. No, because \(f_n(1/n)=e^{-1}\) does not tend to \(0\).

Explanation

At \(x=1/n\) we have \(f_n(1/n)=e^{-1}\) for every \(n\), so \(\sup|f_n|\ge e^{-1}\) and it does not tend to \(0\). Pointwise convergence is not enough: the peak slides toward \(0\) without shrinking.

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Review the concept: Uniform convergence

A sequence of functions \(f_n\) converges uniformly to \(f\) on a set \(A\) if, for every \(\varepsilon>0\), a single index \(N\) works for all points of \(A\).

\[\forall\varepsilon>0\ \exists N:\ n\ge N\Rightarrow|f_n(x)-f(x)|<\varepsilon\ \ \forall x\in A\]

More practice problems: uniform convergence

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